Mark H 
      Lists at theopg.com
      
      Wed Jul  2 03:57:22 CDT 2003
    
Sorry, I should have done it last night. I'd had a few beers and just
zipped up the mdb's and sent them to John (wasn't sure about sending
attachments to the list). Here's the code then.... It's simple and a bit
rough, just to show it could be done.
In db1.mdb there is a simple function that multiplies one value by
another. There is also a query which uses the function as column "X"
(could be anything).
In db2.mdb...
Sub mTest()
'References set to ADO 2.1 and to db1.mdb (where the query and function
are)
    Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset
    Dim strCon As String
    Dim fld As ADODB.Field
    
    strCon = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;User ID=Admin;Data
Source=E:\Data\db1.mdb"
    Set rs = New ADODB.Recordset
    
    rs.Open "SELECT * FROM Query1", strCon
	'Note: you should set the where clause to return
	'no records - make it quicker, data not needed anyway
    For Each fld In rs.Fields
        Debug.Print fld.Name
    Next
    
    Set rs = Nothing
    strCon = ""
    
End Sub
Cheers
Mark
-----Original Message-----
From: accessd-bounces at databaseadvisors.com
[mailto:accessd-bounces at databaseadvisors.com] On Behalf Of Gustav Brock
Sent: 02 July 2003 09:11
To: Access Developers discussion and problem solving
Subject: Re: [AccessD] weird query def
Hi Mark
OK. Thanks but I don't have a specific need right now. It was out of
curiosity - it would be nice to have look. Couldn't you just post the
relevant code here - also for the benefice of others following this
thread?
/gustav