Mark H
Lists at theopg.com
Wed Jul 2 03:57:22 CDT 2003
Sorry, I should have done it last night. I'd had a few beers and just zipped up the mdb's and sent them to John (wasn't sure about sending attachments to the list). Here's the code then.... It's simple and a bit rough, just to show it could be done. In db1.mdb there is a simple function that multiplies one value by another. There is also a query which uses the function as column "X" (could be anything). In db2.mdb... Sub mTest() 'References set to ADO 2.1 and to db1.mdb (where the query and function are) Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Dim strCon As String Dim fld As ADODB.Field strCon = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;User ID=Admin;Data Source=E:\Data\db1.mdb" Set rs = New ADODB.Recordset rs.Open "SELECT * FROM Query1", strCon 'Note: you should set the where clause to return 'no records - make it quicker, data not needed anyway For Each fld In rs.Fields Debug.Print fld.Name Next Set rs = Nothing strCon = "" End Sub Cheers Mark -----Original Message----- From: accessd-bounces at databaseadvisors.com [mailto:accessd-bounces at databaseadvisors.com] On Behalf Of Gustav Brock Sent: 02 July 2003 09:11 To: Access Developers discussion and problem solving Subject: Re: [AccessD] weird query def Hi Mark OK. Thanks but I don't have a specific need right now. It was out of curiosity - it would be nice to have look. Couldn't you just post the relevant code here - also for the benefice of others following this thread? /gustav