Paul Hartland
paul.hartland at googlemail.com
Sat Feb 5 02:56:51 CST 2011
Have you got an example of the view and SP, if you want to run a view or SP in DB2 that uses tables/views in DB1 then you have to reference the database (which I am assuming that you are doing), but if not example is below: in DB1 you have a view call it say ViewInDB1, to reference the view in DB1 from DB2 you would use something like SELECT * FROM DB1.dbo.ViewInDB1 Paul On 5 February 2011 08:14, Borge Hansen <pcs.accessd at gmail.com> wrote: > Hi all, > I have created both a view and a SP based on tables in another Db > (call it Db1) on the same instance of the SQL Server (2008). I created > the view and SP in say Db2. A simple Select ... > When I want to use either the View or the SP in a join with other > tables in Db2 I am stuck. The SP containing the join to either view or > SP based on Db1 tables and saved in Db2 will save Ok but not execute. > Both the view and the SP that I am trying to join up will execute ok > when running on their own. > Funny thing is that in the Access FE I can create a pass through query > based on the view and join the pass through query to an odbc linked > table from Db2. > Any one who can shed light on this? > borge > -- > AccessD mailing list > AccessD at databaseadvisors.com > http://databaseadvisors.com/mailman/listinfo/accessd > Website: http://www.databaseadvisors.com > -- Paul Hartland paul.hartland at googlemail.com