jwcolby
jwcolby at colbyconsulting.com
Mon Feb 7 07:15:23 CST 2011
It feels like a security issue. At my office I am the owner of all the databases. I have many (hundreds) of databases and I have always used the db.dbo.table.view addressing to create views, dynamic SQL etc. most of which references other databases. I have a handful of (a dozen) databases which are what I call "data" databases, which hold name / address lists. In the past I used SPs heavily which operated on data from each other. I also use C# to execute code updating or appending records from one database to another. the key to me is the dbname.dbo. syntax, as long as I have that the queries work fine. Again though, all of the databases are owned by the same owner so rights are not an issue. John W. Colby www.ColbyConsulting.com On 2/5/2011 3:14 AM, Borge Hansen wrote: > Hi all, > I have created both a view and a SP based on tables in another Db > (call it Db1) on the same instance of the SQL Server (2008). I created > the view and SP in say Db2. A simple Select ... > When I want to use either the View or the SP in a join with other > tables in Db2 I am stuck. The SP containing the join to either view or > SP based on Db1 tables and saved in Db2 will save Ok but not execute. > Both the view and the SP that I am trying to join up will execute ok > when running on their own. > Funny thing is that in the Access FE I can create a pass through query > based on the view and join the pass through query to an odbc linked > table from Db2. > Any one who can shed light on this? > borge